(Gen. 1:9 LXT) In the middle, before the repetition, καὶ ἐγένετο οὕτως does appear. Does this confuse the issue?
And, wouldn't it be something if somehow the raqia and the God-wind were related? The first has to be pounded into being while the other pulsates with some sort of energy (m'rahefet). We think of T'hom as Deep, but suppose this was what turned out to be the water above the later-fashioned raqia? (Don't know if it works. Please forgive the half-baked thought.)
I'm looking at LXT from Bible Works. It is more repetitious than the MT and longer than the verse you found in NET:
LXT Genesis 1:9 καὶ εἶπεν ὁ θεός συναχθήτω τὸ ὕδωρ τὸ ὑποκάτω τοῦ οὐρανοῦ εἰς συναγωγὴν μίαν καὶ ὀφθήτω ἡ ξηρά καὶ ἐγένετο οὕτως καὶ συνήχθη τὸ ὕδωρ τὸ ὑποκάτω τοῦ οὐρανοῦ εἰς τὰς συναγωγὰς αὐτῶν καὶ ὤφθη ἡ ξηρά
(Gen. 1:9 LXT) In the middle, before the repetition, καὶ ἐγένετο οὕτως does appear. Does this confuse the issue?
And, wouldn't it be something if somehow the raqia and the God-wind were related? The first has to be pounded into being while the other pulsates with some sort of energy (m'rahefet). We think of T'hom as Deep, but suppose this was what turned out to be the water above the later-fashioned raqia? (Don't know if it works. Please forgive the half-baked thought.)
I only quoted the Greek addition, not the whole verse. The rest of it is the same as MT.